Arabic grammar question

[zaharoorin]

What is the difference between using
1. Lam Yafal and 2. Ma Fa'ala
They both have the same meaning is there any sort of grammar difference except that lam gives the verb a jazm?

[abuhajira]

:salam:

1. It should be "La Yaf'alu" and not Lam Taf'alu...
2. Yaf'alu is from Mudare' (present and future tense) where as Fa'ala is from Madhi (Past tense).

So When you say La Yaf'alu it actually mean, "He is not doing it or will not do it"
But when you say Ma Fa'ala it would mean "He did not do it"

Generally they will be taken as they are translated, but sometimes, only sometimes Ma Fa'ala is used in future tense. For example Allah uses it in Quran when He talks about Qiyama and Akhira or the punishment of Kufr etc.. in a past tense.

This is for Ta'keed (emphasis) to show the certaintly of such an even.. that it is so much certain that it is as if it is in the past..

I hope that explains..

:ws:

[Abdul Razak]

:salam:

1. It should be "La Yaf'alu" and not Lam Taf'alu...
2. Yaf'alu is from Mudare' (present and future tense) where as Fa'ala is from Madhi (Past tense).

So When you say La Yaf'alu it actually mean, "He is not doing it or will not do it"
But when you say Ma Fa'ala it would mean "He did not do it"

Generally they will be taken as they are translated, but sometimes, only sometimes Ma Fa'ala is used in future tense. For example Allah uses it in Quran when He talks about Qiyama and Akhira or the punishment of Kufr etc.. in a past tense.

This is for Ta'keed (emphasis) to show the certaintly of such an even.. that it is so much certain that it is as if it is in the past..

I hope that explains..

:ws:



:salam:

I think you mixed things up a bit. Her question made perfect sense. By putting lam in front of the present tense verb (mudar') you actually are negating the past tense in meaning.

So ma fa'ala and lam yaf'al both have the meaning of "he did not do". It is "lam yaf'al" and not "lam yaf'alu" because it is majzoom, so the last letter, the "l", has a sukoon on it because the word lam that enters upon the present tense makes it majzoom.

I'm sure you know all of this, since I'm pretty sure your Arabic is better than mine. You probably just misread the sister's question.

Back to the sister's question, I'm not sure how the two are different, other than the fact that the verb in ma fa'ala is mabni and the verb in lam yaf'al is majzoom. There may be a subtle distinction (maybe some Arabic experts can comment), but both have the same basic meaning as far as I've learned.

[abuhajira]

:salam:

Jazak ALlah for picking that mistake of mine ;)

Lam it is..

It comes in the "Nafi Jahad Bilam" Scale. and in written meaning it is same..however it carries an extra ta'qeed on the Nafi.. as in "i DID NOT do it"

"he DID NOT do it" as oppoed to "he did not do it"

:ws:

[zaharoorin]

Okay. Jazakallah for that but how is the takeed shown in say translating to urdu?
How about using one over the other in a rhetorical question like .. for example Surah Feel?

[abuhajira]

:salam:

Lam Yaf'al - Us aik mard ney naheen kya!

Ma Fa'ala - Us aik mard nay naheen kya.

In case of a question the meanings are normal but with slight more inquisition.. a lam tara kaifa... ky tum nay naheen dekha!! kaisa fa'l kiya tumharay rab nay Haathi waloon ke saath...


:ws:

[zaharoorin]

shukran

[Husain]

Lam Yaf'al means :"He did not ever do it" or "He never ever did it" - Completely negating the past tense.
Ma Fa'ala means: "He did not do it" - Negating one specific instance, not every single one.

[zaharoorin]

so in essence it acts as nafi jins?
jazakallah for that... maybe what my teacher was looking for..

[maniadoc]

1. It should be "La Yaf'alu" and not Lam Taf'alu...
2. Yaf'alu is from Mudare' (present and future tense) where as Fa'ala is from Madhi (Past tense).

So When you say La Yaf'alu it actually mean, "He is not doing it or will not do it"
But when you say Ma Fa'ala it would mean "He did not do it"

Generally they will be taken as they are translated, but sometimes, only sometimes Ma Fa'ala is used in future tense. For example Allah uses it in Quran when He talks about Qiyama and Akhira or the punishment of Kufr etc.. in a past tense.

This is for Ta'keed (emphasis) to show the certaintly of such an even.. that it is so much certain that it is as if it is in the past..

I hope that explains..




Salam Abuhajira & Abdul Razak

Some christians r using this "Mudare" tense concept to claim that "Lam Ya-Lid" in verse Quran:112:3 Allah is NOT denying that HE had a "son" in PAST rather HE is saying that HE will NOT have any more son(after Jesus) (God forbid)

here is the link; Read post #82:-
http://foru.ms/t5859268-how-does-islam-and-christian-resurrection-differ.html&page=9



Please go thru whole of above mentioned thread on this site & reply to this fabricator. Most of Muslims who debate on this site r NOT well-versed with Arabic. So we need ppl like u to clear the wrong translations of Quran.

Thanks.

[wullamulla]

Lam Yaf'al means :"He did not ever do it" or "He never ever did it" - Completely negating the past tense.
Ma Fa'ala means: "He did not do it" - Negating one specific instance, not every single one.

is it the same for nafi ta'qeed balan and fael mudhaari'?