does the original arabic version of this hadith really uses the word 'puberty'.sahih bukhari , Volume 7, Book 62, Number 63:
Narrated Sahl bin Sad:
While we were sitting in the company of the Prophet a woman came to him and presented herself (for marriage) to him. The Prophet looked at her, lowering his eyes and raising them, but did not give a reply. One of his companions said, "Marry her to me O Allah's Apostle!" The Prophet asked (him), "Have you got anything?" He said, "I have got nothing." The Prophet said, "Not even an iron ring?" He Sad, "Not even an iron ring, but I will tear my garment into two halves and give her one half and keep the other half." The Prophet; said, "No. Do you know some of the Quran (by heart)?" He said, "Yes." The Prophet said, "Go, I have agreed to marry her to you with what you know of the Qur'an (as her Mahr)." 'And for those who have no courses (i.e. they are still immature). (65.4) And the 'Iddat for the girl before puberty is three months (in the above Verse).
because as far as i know marriage is possible before puberty, but nikkah only at the onset of puberty (since the prophet saw waited with Nikkah till aicha reached the age of 9 ) , and i thought 'iddat' applies only tho those couples whi have performed nikkah with their marriage.
so can someone please tell me what the arabic version of this hadith says.