This is a tricky question that I've asked different people/scholars and a lot of them either got stumped or couldn't understand the question.
Basically, there are two different points that need to be understood before understanding the Question.
1. The Quran and Hadeeth are both considered to be from Allah (swt). The Quran is from Allah in both wording and meaning whereas the Hadeeth are from Allah in meaning and the wording is from the Prophet (saw).
2. One of the proofs that the scholars of tafseer utilize in showing that the Quran is a mu'jiza is that the Quran could not have possibly been authored by the Prophet (saw) for a variety of reasons. For example, it contains ancient tales that the Prophet (saw) could not have possibly known or it contains prophecies like in Surah al Rum. A minor piece of evidence in this case is that the scholars point out how the Quran actually corrected the Prophet (saw) in certain instances, for example, i believe it was the marriage of Zaid (ra) and Surah al Abasa, and another example where the Quran intervened was in when the hypocrites were questioning the chastity of Aisha (ra).
So we have two pieces of evidences that seemingly contradict each other: the hadeeth and the Quran that are both from Allah (swt). If the Quran and the hadeeth are both from Allah (swt), then why would the Quran have to override the actions of the Prophet (saw)? After all, everything that the prophet said, did, or saw and did not stop is considered a hadeeth. So its seems that the Creator would be correcting himself.
What is the wisdom behind this? Is this a different type of abrogation? Or did the Prophet (saw) not actually be corrected, each instance was just an example that served as a lesson.
Although I appreciate people's personal opinions on this matter, I would prefer the opinion's of the Ulema first before people post up what they think.