> Does the so-called "verse of the sword" (9:5) abrogate all
> verses of peace with the non-Muslims in the Qur'an? Does
> this verse mean (as some Wahhabis, and some non-Muslims
> have understood) that Muslims are allowed to go around and
> kill any idoloter they meet if it is not the "sacred months"?
> The only reason I ask is because non-Muslims have a
> misconception of this verse and would like to know it's true
> meaning (because many know that they do not understand
> it's context, and want clarification). What do the classical
> tafsirs say about this verse?
You must understand here that the verse is speaking about
a continuing war between certain factions of the polytheists
and Muslims. And it is instructing the Muslims that they may
continue this war to bring about security in the Arabian Peninsula
after the sacred months (i.e. Rajab, Dhul Qa`dah, Dhul Hijjah, and
Muharram) have passed.
Thus, the verse applies to the Arabian Peninsula only at this point
in history - that it is agreed upon by most of our scholars that no
non-Muslims may permanently reside in the Arabian Peninsula.
All non-Muslims residents of the Arabian Peninsula must either
move out or convert to Islam.
The Prophet (May Allah bless him and give him peace) said,
"Two dins cannot remain in the Peninsula of Arabia."
[{Malik, al-Jami`, ma ja'a fi ijla'i l-yahudi mina l-madinah hadith
#1387}]
[{Ahmad, baqi musnad al-ansaar, baaqi musnad al-sabiq, `Abdullah
ibn `utbah from `A'ishah, hadith #25148}]
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