Distinction between Ibadat and Muamalat

[AbdRahman11]

As-Salamu Alaikum,
Bismillah. Alhamdulilah. Wa Salam ala Rasuullah. When it comes to Fiqh, have heard people often break up our actions into "Muamalat" and not "Ibadat". I would like to know from where these 2 terms have been derived and how our actions can be categorized into each . For example is our marriage fall under "Muamalat" or "Ibadat"? What about eating? What about using the restroom? What about our time with our spouses at night? How and where do you draw the distinction?

I would like to know the specific hadith or ayah which breaks up our actions into these 2 categories. Do not just tell me that this is what the scholars have done. The scholars are not an evidence by themselves.

From what I know this entire distinction is a bida.The Prophet (saw) and the Sahabah never broke actions into these 2 separate categories. For them everything was Ibadat. From their business, to their government, to their social interactions, to their prayer. And the linguistic deifinition of the Ibadat means "slavehood" and not "worship" as it is commonly mistranslated. So how is it that you can be a slave to Allah (swt) in some areas of your life and not in others? When there are specific hadith where the Prophet (saw) has taught you how to buy and sell and do business, how then can you not consider this as Ibadat?

Jazak Allah Khair.

[suleimanibnsalim]

Bismillah...

Don't comment unless you understand what the divisions entail. The devisions are all `Ibadaat in the linguistic sense and the Shar`i sense. Nobody disputes that. However, in the Istilahi sense, `Ibadaat are dealings between you and Allah, Munakahaat are rulings which deal with ones fealings for he opposite gender, Mu`amalaat are rulings which deal with man's interaction with creation in general in order to profit himself and Jinayaat/Hudud deal with man's aspect of reaction to give victory to the truth. There is no harm in terminology when everyone understands what one means.

Therefore there is no harm in it being used by (nearly all Fuqahah for around 1000 years) when the teachers who teach the books know what it means. It is only when the Tabdi`iyyah like you come not understanding what is meant. Are going to say that it is Bid`ah to call the science dealing with narrators of Hadith `Ilm ar-Rijal because Rijal is too general and not used by the Sahabah al-Kiram Ridhwanullah `Alayhim Ajm`in?

The point is that the Shar`i, Lughawi and Istilahi meanings can differ.

Please correct me if there is anything wrong.

Was-Salam

[AbdRahman11]

The reason why this discussion is important is because I have heard people say that when it comes to Ibadat we need an evidence from the Quran and Sunnah to perform any action, but when it comes to Muamalat we do not need any evidence. We can assume that all actions regarding this sphere are permissible unless expressly forbidden.

Can you elaborate a bit more on what you mean by Istilahi? Is this the same as the juristic principle used in the Hanafi school? Do you know what is the evidence for it?

[suleimanibnsalim]

Bismillah...

As-Salamu `Alaykum wa Rahmatullah...

Would you give me an example please? The Asl of everything is permissibility. Do you disagree? Whatever is commanded in the texts is Fard/Wajib/Sunnah depending on the strength of the evidence, likewise whatever is prohited is Makruh Tanzihan, Makruh Tahriman or Haram depending on the strength of evidence, and whatever is left is permissible and this applies to everything. This has nothing to do with the "divisions".

Istilahi meanings refer to technical meanings.

Was-Salam