"Abu Dawood (2050) narrated that Ma’qil ibn Yazaar (may Allah be pleased with him) said: A man came to the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and said: “O Messenger of Allaah, I have found a woman who is from a good family and is beautiful, but she does not bear children; should I marry her?” He told him not to. Then he came to him a second time and said something similar and he told him not to marry her. Then he came to him a third time and said something similar and he (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Marry the one who is loving and fertile, for I will be proud of your great numbers.”

Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Irwa’ al-Ghaleel, 1784.
Is it the case that we should therefore only consider fertile women? With Barren women given less preference? Maybe as a second wife? I dont like asking one question after another as I just have, it sounds a little arrogant so please don't read it that way (without tone of voice text can be read in many ways and I dont want to sound rude, hence I felt the need to say this).

Would the same ruling be given therefore to an infertile man? Or maybe more harsh since a woman can only have one man, therefore to marry an infertile man means no children from that marriage. The only option then would be for an infertile man to marry a barren women which would be very rare?