I have read in multiple sources that around 7th century, the majority of Muslims consisted of Shia.
If true - why was that and what changed?
Thank you brothers.

I have read in multiple sources that around 7th century, the majority of Muslims consisted of Shia.
If true - why was that and what changed?
Thank you brothers.
لا إله إلا الله محمد رسول الله

that was never true as one of the signs of the rightly guided group of muslims is that they'll be the majority; hadith!
Imam Abu Dawood (Rahimahullah) has quoted the well known Hadith concerning the division of the Muslim Ummah into seventy-three sects in his Sunan (3/4580, English edn):
Abu Amir al-Hawdhani said, "Mu'awiyah ibn Abi Sufyan (may Allah be pleased with him) stood among us and said, 'Beware! The Apostle of Allah (may peace be upon him) stood among us and said': 'Beware! The People of the Book before (you) were split up into 72 sects, and this community will be split up into 73, seventy-two of them will go to Hell and one of them will go to Paradise, and it is the majority group (Jama'ah).'
Last edited by Abu-Rayhan; 26-04-2012 at 03:02 PM.

There were times when the Shi'a had political power or influence in certain regions (similar to how they have influence and power in Iran, Lebanon, and Bahrain) but they have never been and never will be the majority.
ياايها الذين امنوا اذكروا الله ذكرا كثيرا


Thank you all for your answers, I appreciate it!
لا إله إلا الله محمد رسول الله


In some countries they are in majority but i whole they always are in minority.
[Moderator note: advertising such sites is not allowed on sunniforum.com. ]


In some countries, they are a major popularity, but not loads
Bookmarks