
Originally Posted by
Karim_sunni
I;ve had an discussion with someone about this hadith, i've explained him that this hadith can only be interpretated as followed"
'in Islam wife beating in general is strictly forbidden, except in case of Quran 4:34 (nushuz/rebellion) a husband can lightly spank his wife, and therefore the meaning of this hadith is , that allah swt won't question a man to why he hit his wife, because allah swt made clear in the quran in which situation it is allowed, so a man who this his wife for anu other reason will be punished for it and therefore not even questioned, because the rulings about when it is permisseble are clear'
Is this interpretation correct, and what do classical scholars like Imam nawawi etc say about the meaning of this hadith?
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